As we discussed with Kant, he states that a person with reason, thinking rationally, will have to support and adhere to the Categorical Imperative (to act only in such a way that you can will the maxim of your action as a universal law) and his three conditions for justice to apply. Therefore, just actions can be viewed as rational, while unjust actions are seen as irrational. Kant even states that justice can only be defined using pure reason, as opposed to empirical principles.
For Rawls, the Original Position establishes the rules that rational people would all agree to under the veil of ignorance. Rawls argues that those people would choose the Maximin Rule to maximize the minimums. According to Rawls, it is most just and rational to arrange societal rules to maximize the advantage of those in the worst positions in society, which provides a type of safety net for everyone since the veil of ignorance keeps people from knowing their place in the new society.
Because the people forming the future society are rational, they will adopt and develop the two principles through which society will successfully function. The Liberty Principle, in which all have equal right to the same kinds of liberties that are compatible with everyone having those liberties, can’t be justified if violated. Then, Rawls introduces the Difference Principle, under which social and economic inequalities must be arranged so that they a) are to the greatest benefit t the least advantaged, and b) are attached to offices/positions that are open to all (equality of opportunity). Rawls assumes that there will always be inequality in society, but that it is rational to implement the Maximin Rule to minimize the effect of differences on the liberties of citizens. Rational people, according to Rawls, will say that this system is the most just organization of society.
I find it interesting that both Rawls and Kant, while providing two very different versions of justice and just societies, base their theories on man’s most primary commonality: reason. After reading Hume’s essay, which focused on sympathy and fellow-feeling to validate justice in society, I really think that Rawls and Kant make more sense, and seem to be argued more solidly, because of this basis upon rationality.
I like the connection being drawn between Kant and Rawls, I had thought of that as well. A basic question I have is if Kant and Rawls agree that all men are rational, would they say that unjust actions are done by rational men acting irrationally?
ReplyDeleteWhile on a personal level, I think I prefer Hume's sympathy driven philosophy, I do struggle with his philosophy becoming to relative and losing its credibility. And I respect the structure provided by Kant and Rawls that seems more easily applied to a society.
I do think that, in the situations they provide for, unjust actions are committed by irrational men, especially since they both argue that reason and acting rationality are the foundation of justice.
ReplyDeleteI can appreciate your preference towards Hume. I can identify that sympathy/fellow-feeling he describes in regards to my feelings about justice, but I do agree that it sometimes comes across as too subjective. I prefer the structure that Kant and Rawls provide, because I can easily see the reason behind it (pun intended).